RCIS 1 1

If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?

What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?

The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?

When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.

Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:

Signs of Right sided heart failure include:

Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%

The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?

What is Flamms equation?

The formula used to calculate MAP is:

What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?

Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:

What does RAD stand for?

What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?

What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?

Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?

What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?

In an X-ray tube the:

Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?

What converts x-rays into an image?

The contrast that is best for the patient is:

Radiolucent means:

Radiopaque means:

ReoPro works on:

Heparin potentiates the action of:

Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:

There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?

Aspirin inhibits the action of:

Which agent is not an antiplatelet?

If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?

If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?

What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?

If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.

Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______

Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:

The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:

The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:

Amiodarone is used to treat:

What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?

Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.

Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?

The Impella catheter most closely resembles:

When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?

An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?

An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

How do you test the defibrillator?

What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib

%1 Cardiac Output and Related Concepts Quiz %2%3 This set of practice questions covers the fundamental concepts related to cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, and various cardiovascular pathologies. It also includes questions on radiology, pharmacology, and electrocardiography relevant to cardiovascular health. Each question is followed by the correct answer to help you test and expand your knowledge. %4Q1: What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?A1: c. CO= HR x SVQ2: Stroke Volume is ________?A2: a. Related to preloadQ3: Preload is most impacted by:A3: b. Increased filling volumesQ4: A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate:A4: a. increased afterloadQ5: Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by:A5: d. Radius of the vesselQ6: The formula for blood pressure is:A6: b. BP = CO x SVRQ7: What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?A7: D. V waveQ8: An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?A8: c. RV infarctQ9: If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?A9: d. JVDQ10: What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?A10: b. congenitalQ11: The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?A11: b. 30cmQ12: When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____.A12: c. RA, PAQ13: Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:A13: b. Restrictive pericarditisQ14: Signs of Right sided heart failure include:A14: c. JVDQ15: Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present?SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98%A15: b. L to R ASDQ16: The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?A16: c. Ostium SecundumQ17: What is Flamms equation?A17: a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4Q18: The formula used to calculate MAP is:A18: c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic3Q19: What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?A19: d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSDQ20: Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?A20: d. Truncus ArteriosusQ21: Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:A21: c. Cardiac TamponadeQ22: What does RAD stand for?A22: a. radiation absorbed doseQ23: What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images?A23: a. image intensifierQ24: What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?A24: d. 5 REMQ25: Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?A25: c. 0.5mmQ26: What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?A26: b. 6 feetQ27: In an X-ray tube the:A27: b. cathode is negative and the anode is positiveQ28: Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?A28: c. LateralQ29: What converts x-rays into an image?A29: b. Image intensifierQ30: The contrast that is best for the patient is:A30: a. Low osmolalityQ31: Radiolucent means:A31: c. x-rays are permitted to pass throughQ32: Radiopaque means:A32: b. x-rays are not permitted to pass throughQ33: ReoPro works on:A33: d. IIb/IIIa receptorsQ34: Heparin potentiates the action of:A34: a. antithrombinQ35: Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of:A35: d. ThrombinQ36: There are _____ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade?A36: a. 2Q37: Aspirin inhibits the action of:A37: d. Arachidonic acidQ38: Which agent is not an antiplatelet?A38: b. HeparinQ39: If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?A39: b. Fluids to hydrateQ40: If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?A40: a. ProtamineQ41: What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?A41: d. AdenosineQ42: If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized.A42: a. TrueQ43: Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______A43: c. 4mg in 1ccQ44: Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:A44: b. 400mg in 250ccQ45: The best short acting medication/anxiolytic to sedate a patient is:A45: c. versed/midazolamQ46: The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:A46: b. NTGQ47: Amiodarone is used to treat:A47: c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmiasQ48: What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?A48: c. NTGQ49: Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration.A49: a. renal failureQ50: Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?A50: c. Mobitz 2Q51: The Impella catheter most closely resembles:A51: c. PigtailQ52: When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise?A52: b. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopyQ53: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?A53: a. inferior wallQ54: An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?A54: c. CxQ55: How do you test the defibrillator?A55: b. discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)Q56: What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?A56: b. You could put them into Vfib