CSFA CERTIFICATION PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2024

. povidone-iodine4. glutaraldehydeA2: A. 1, 2, and 3 onlyQ3: When should the patients chest tubes be attached to the drainage system during a thoracotomy?A3: A. after the thoracic cavity is closedQ4: In patients who develop fever, abdominal pain, and profuse diarrhea, the MOST frequently seen antibiotic-associated enterocolitis is due to which of the following organisms?A4: D. Clostridium difficileQ5: During a carotid endarterectomy, the final occlusion clamp to be removed after anastomosis is on theA5: B. internal carotid.Q6: During a routine abdominal hysterectomy, the anesthesiologist notes that the patient is becoming progressively tachycardic. He notes that there has been virtually no blood loss. The surgeon requests additional muscle relaxation because the patients abdominal musculature is tightening up. The esophageal temperature probe indicates a core body temperature of 103°F (39°C). The anesthesiologist notices that the CO2 monitors are alarming with high levels. The anesthesiologist turns off his anesthetic agent, hyperventilates the patient with 100% oxygen, and administers which of the following drugs?A6: B. dantroleneQ7: A pledgeted suture is used for hemostasis in liver injury toA7: C. reduce the likelihood of suture cut-through.Q8: During cardiac arterial bypass grafting, a surgeon needs to vasodilate and stop arterial spasm. Which of the following drugs should be used?A8: A. PapaverineQ9: When ligating the short gastric arteries, placing them under too much tension may result in a tear of theA9: A. splenic capsule.Q10: Which of the following is needed to complete the circuit on an ESU when using a monopolar electrode tip?A10: D. a dispersive padQ11: A complication of steep reverse Trendelenburg position isA11: A. deep vein thrombosis.Q12: The topical hemostatic agent thrombin should never be directly injected or allowed to enter into a vessel becauseA12: C. it can cause clotting and may ultimately lead to death.Q13: According to Maslows Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following patient needs should be met first?A13: C. PhysiologicalQ14: An epidural catheter is introduced into a patient in the preoperative holding room. When the patient is given a bolus of local anesthetic in the OR, the surgical first assistant observes hypotension and signs of complete respiratory failure. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?A14: A. migration of the epidural catheter through the duraQ15: Taper point needles are generally used in which of the following tissue types?1. gastrointestinal2. tendons3. adipose4. vascularA15: 1, 3, and 4 onlyQ16: A threaded cortical screw cannot provide compression of bone fragments unless theA16: C. near cortex is overdrilled.Q17: Which of the following is a normal adult hematocrit range?A17: B. 37 to 52%Q18: Excessive limb lengthening during total hip arthroplasty can increase the risk of injury to theA18: B. Sciatic nerveQ19: Which of the following disease processes can affect cranial nerve VII?1. acoustic neuroma2. mastoid infections3. hydrocephalus4. Bells PalsyA19: B. 1, 2, and 4 onlyQ20: A patient involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the OR. The patient presents with the following:The surgical first assistant should prepare the OR forA20: D. an exploratory laparotomy.Q21: During digital reanastomosis, which of the following items is commonly used?A21: A. operative microscopeQ22: When a flank approach is used for a nephrectomy, which of the following muscles are involved?A22: C. latissimus dorsi and internal obliqueQ23: Immediately following an arthroscopic assisted anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, a patients knee is typically placed inA23: A. a hinged knee brace.Q24: Joseph button-end knife, Ballenger swivel knife, and Cottle elevator are all considered which of the following kinds of instrument?A24: C. ENTQ25: Which of the following has been shown to have proven benefit in the prevention of postoperative wound infections?1. administrating appropriate antibiotics within 1 hour of incision time2. maintaining suitable antibiotic coverage for 48-72 hours postoperatively3. irrigating the wound with normal saline4. irrigating the wound with antibiotic-based solutionA25: A. 1 and 3 onlyQ26: During a carotid endarterectomy, the arteries are unclamped and reclamped before arteriotomy closure is performed toA26: A. flush free debris from the carotid bulb.Q27: When performing compression hip screw fixation, the lag screw is insertedA27: B. within 1 cm of the femoral articular surface.Q28: Which of the following are the most common lasers used in gynecological surgery?A28: D. CO2 and Nd:YAGQ29: Which of the following capsules must be entered to gain access to the kidney or suprarenal gland for repair?A29: C. Gerotas fasciaQ30: While a patient is in the lithotomy position, which of the following nerves are at risk for injury?1. sciatic2. phrenic3. obturator4. femoral cutaneousA30: C. 1, 3, and 4 onlyQ31: Blood spatterings on the lens of an operative microscope should be removed withA31: B. water.Q32: A 3-way Foley catheter with a 30 cc balloon should be inserted following a transurethral prostate resection (TURP) toA32: A. irrigate and facilitate hemostasis.Q33: In axillary node dissection, the sentinel node isA33: A. closest to the primary tumor.Q34: Which of the following catheters is used primarily for suprapubic drainage for poor-risk patients?A34: D. PezzerQ35: Which of the following incisions is usually used for an open cholecystectomy?A35: D. right subcostalQ36: Which of the following must be adhered to when positioning a patient laterally for thoracotomy?1. padding pressure points2. protecting nerves and vessels3. preventing hyperextension of limbs4. flexing upper legsA36: A. 1, 2, and 3 onlyQ37: During induction of anesthesia, the administration of propofol (Diprivan®) would causeA37: A. a hypnotic state and sedation to unconsciousness.Q38: A patient scheduled for elective surgery has a positive pregnancy test. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?A38: D. Defer the surgery until after the delivery.Q39: Which of the following methods of suturing should be used to close a deep layer located on the medial edge of a myocutaneous flap closure of a sacral decubitus ulcer?A39: D. half-buried mattress suture with 0 PDS FSQ40: Which of the following tests measures the velocity of the flow of red blood cells?A40: A. DopplerQ41: A 70-year-old patient who underwent an 8-hour colon resection is at the greatest risk for which of the following?A41: B. postoperative infectionQ42: When a surgeon places a 2-stage venous cannula for cardiopulmonary bypass, where should the cannula be placed?A42: B. right atriumQ43: Using Standard Precautions, which of the following is proper procedure when handling contaminated items?A43: B. disposing suctioned body fluids into a drain connected to a sanitary sewerQ44: A 60-year-old obese patient with a history of diabetes and renal insufficiency has undergone drainage of an abdominal abscess through a midline incision. Which of the following should the surgical first assistant consider during wound closure?A44: C. An interrupted retention suture should be utilized.Q45: Vertical-banded gastroplasty (VAB) and gastric bypass Roux-en-Y are common procedures performed in which of the following types of surgery?A45: C. bariatricQ46: Which of the following are reasons for keeping the OR at a relative humidity level of between 50 - 55%?1. reduced risk of infection2. lower levels of patient discomfort3. minimization of static electricity4. depressed waste anesthesia gasA46: A. 1 and 3 onlyQ47: During a Nissen fundoplication, care should be taken when placing medial traction on the stomach to prevent avulsion of theA47: B. gastric arteriesQ48: Which of the following should be visualized on an x-ray to determine if a long bone is still growing?A48: D. epiphyseal plateQ49: A circlage procedure is performed for which of the following conditions?A49: C. incompetent cervixQ50: Which of the following spore-forming microorganisms are used as biological monitors for checking steam sterilization effectiveness for a load of instruments in a rigid container?A50: A. Bacillus stearothermophilusQ51: The cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, and proximal portion of the transverse colon blood supply is from the ileocolic, right colic, and middle colic arteries which comes from theA51: A. superior mesenteric arteryQ52: Passive drains are not connected to a vacuum; they drain fluid, pus, blood, or necrotic debris by capillary action and gravity. All the following are examples of Passive drains EXCEPT:A52: D. Hemovac drainQ53: Which of the following tendon autografts is MOST typically utilized when performing anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction?A53: C. patellarQ54: The most-common malignancy within the brainA54: B. AstrocytomasQ55: What is the desired effect of atropine sulfate when used as a preoperative medication?A55: D. drying of secretionsQ56: The arterial blood flow to the brain originates with the internal carotid arteries, and the circle of Willis is the main distribution hub for the entire brain. Although aneurysms can occur anywhere along any artery, the most common sites encountered included all the following EXCEPT:A56: D. internal carotidQ57: Which of the following may be used when applying a sterile dressing to a skin graft site?A57: A. pressure dressingQ58: When performing a dilation and curettage, which of the following instruments is used to grasp the cervix?A58: C. schroederQ59: The liver weighs around 1500 gm and is the largest gland in the body. It is covered by?A59: B. Glissons capsuleQ60: Which of the following is the correct order, from the outermost to the innermost layer, of the tissues that compose the wall of the stomach and small intestine?1. submucosa2. muscularis3. serosa4. mucosaA60: B. 3, 2, 1, 4Q61: This surgical position also can be used to treat a patient in hypovolemic shock.A61: C. trendelenburgQ62: Which of the following is the desired effect when applying a partially threaded cancellous screw to a bone fragment?A62: C. CompressionQ63: Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true?A63: C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe countsQ64: A weak area in the muscular structure of the esophagus is Killians triangle, which is between the oblique muscle fibers of the inferior constrictor muscles and the transverse fibers of the crocopharyngeus muscle. This area is the most-common site for?A64: D. Zenkers diverticulum